1. Who categorised the subject of jurisprudence as "Expositorial Jurisprudence" and censorial Jurisprudence?
A. Holland
B. Bentham
C. Kelsen
D. Paton
2. Who described Jurisprudence as Lawyer's extra version?
A. Savigny
B. Salmond
C. Julius Stone
D. Buckland
3. Fiction Theory is related to which of the following concepts?
A. Ownership
B. Liability
C. Justice
D. Legal Personality
4. The Consumer Protection Act was enacted in:
A. 1985
B. 1986
C. 2005
D. 2008
5. Appeal against the award of claims tribunals under the Motor Vehicles Act 1988 can be made under:
A. Section 171
B. Section 172
C. Section 173
D. Section 174
6. The amendment in Motor Vehicles Act in 1994, the compensation in case of death of the person is:
A. Rs. 25,000/-
B. Rs. 50,000/-
C. Rs. 70,000/-
D. Rs. 90,000/-
7. Under the vicarious liability, the liability is
A. Joint
B. Several
C. Both A & B
D. Either of the above depending upon facts and circumstances of the case
8. In Torts, in case of Defamation:
A. Intention to defame is not necessary
B. Intention to defame is necessary
C. Both A & B
D. Either A or B
9. When was the Advocate Act introduced?
A. 1962
B. 1959
C. 1961
D. 1966
10. The Bar Council of India consist of following as ex-officio member
A. Attorney General of India
B. Solicitor General of India
C. Both A & B
D. None of the above
11. Indian Bar Committee was constituted first time under the chairmanship of Sir Adward Chamier in the year
A. 1927
B. 1961
C. 1949
D. 1923
12. Power of Disciplinary Committee under the Advocate Act is provided under:
A. Section 42
B. Section 53
C. Section 40
D. Section 36
13. The Indian Council of Arbitration was established in
A. 1956
B. 1976
C. 1965
D. 1996
14. Lex Arbitri Means
A. Arbitral tribunal sitting in India can apply the buy the Singapore
B. Just Law
C. Arbitrary Law
D. None of these
15. In India the Arbitration & Conciliation Act was enacted in
A. 1992
B. 1993
C. 1994
D. 1996
16. Section 10 Sub section (i) of t he Arbitration & Conciliation Act talks about
A. Power of Arbitration
B. Numbers of Arbitrations
C. Capacity of Arbitrations
D. None of the above
17. A Sunni Muslim marries with Kitabya girl, the marriage is:
A. Valid
B. Void
C. Irregular
D. None of these
18. The Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939 is based on which School of Muslim Law?
A. Hanafi School
B. Shafi School
C. Maliki School
D. Zaidi School
19. Under the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956 a female Hindu has a capacity to take a son or daughter in adoption if
A. She is not married
B. She is married
C. She is widow and has no son or daughter but has a widowed daughter-in-law
D. She cannot adopt at all
20. A child born of void and voidable marriage under Hindu law is:
A. Legitimate
B. Illegitimate
C. Illegal
D. None of these
21. The father of which of the leader has been the Deputy Prime Minister of India?
A. Kumari Mayawati
B. Mrs. Meira Kumar
C. Mrs. Pratibha Devi Singh Patil
D. Mrs. Vasundhara Raje
22. Who was the Constitutional Advisor to the Constituent Assembly of India?
A. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B. Dr. B R Ambedkar
C. B N Rao
D. Jawaharlal Nehru
23. The concept of "Judicial Review" in India is based on:
A. Procedure established by law
B. Due process of law
C. Rule of law
D. International treaties and dconvention
24. Protection of environment is a:
A. Constitutional Duty
B. Directive Principle
C. Fundamental Duty
D. Both B & C
25. The item "Education" belongs to the:
A. Union List
B. State List
C. Concurrent List
D. Residuary Subjects
26. While interpreting the phrase "equality before the law" contained in Article 14 of the Constitution, the Supreme Court constantly maintained that equality means:
A. Absolute equality among human beings
B. Equal treatment to all persons
C. Amoung equals, the law should be equal and should be equal and should be euqlly administred
D. Both B & C
27.
A. Six
B. Seven
C. Eight
D. Ten
28. Which one of the following Fundamental Rights was described by Dr. B R Ambedkar as "the heart and soul of the Constitution"?
A. Right to equality
B. Right to freedom of Religion
C. Rights to Constitutional Remedies
D. All the above
29. What is the period of appointment of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
A. 6 years
B. Upto 65 years of age
C. 6 years or 65 years of age whichever is earlier
D. Upto 62 years of age
30. Which of the following Writs is a bulwark of personal freedom?
A. Quo Warranto
B. Mandamus
C. Habeas Corpus
D. Certiorari
31. Supremacy of law, Equality before law and predominance of law Spirit are the basic principles of doctrine of
A. Colourable Legislation
B. Doctrine of "Separation of Powers"
C. Doctrine of "Rule of Law"
D. Doctrine of "Excessive delegation"
32. "Rule of Law is the antithesis of arbitrariness in all civilized societies. It has come to be regarded as mark of a free society. It seeks to maintain the balance between the opposite notions of individual liberty and public order" this was opined by whom in famous "Habeas Corpus" Case?
A. Justice H R Khanna
B. Chief Justice Ray
C. Justice Chandrachud
D. Justice Bhagwati
33. Maxim "delegatus non potest delegare" means
A. A delegate can further delegate
B. A delegate cannot further delegate
C. A delegate must protest delegation objectively
D. None of the above
34. Consumer Protection Act 1986 is predominantly based on UN General Assembly resolution with due negotiations in the
A. UNCITRAL
B. UNCTAD
C. UN ECOSOC
D. None of the above
35. Which of the following is irrelevant fact under Evidence Act, 1872?
A. Facts regarding motive
B. Facts regarding statements without related conduct
C. Facts regarding statements clubbed with conduct
D. Facts which make other relevant fact as highly probable.
36. Test of competency of witness is
A. Her being intelligent
B. Must be major
C. Understanding the nature of question
D. Capable of understanding the nature of questions and give rational answer
37. Which one is exception to "rule of hearsay" evidence?
A. Dying declaration
B. Facts forming part of same transaction
C. Facts forming plea of alibi
D. Facts regarding character of accuses
38. Communication between husband and wife is treated as privileged if communication;
A. Was made during marriage with promise of confidentiality
B. Was made during marriage, even without promise of confidentiality
C. Was made before marriage with promise of confidentiality
D.
39. Leading questions can be asked even without permission of court during
A. Examination-in-Chief
B. Cross Examination
C. Re-examination
D. All of the above
40. What do you mean by word "Evidence"?
A. Every fact connected with case
B. Facts introduced in court of law
C. Both
D. None
41. What is fact in issue?
A. Facts involved indirectly
B. Necessary facts to arrive or determine right, liability or immunity
C. Both
D. None
42. Relevant fact is?
A. Facts logically relevant to any fact in issue
B. Facts legally relevant to any fact in issue
C. Both
D. None
43. The term "Lock-out" under the industrial Dispute Act defined in:
A. Section 2 (1)
B. Section 2 (0)
C. Section 3 (1)
D. Section 2 (M)
44. The term "Lay-off" has been defined under the Industrial Dispute Act
A. Sec 2 (KKK)
B. Sec 2 (o)
C. Sec 2 (1)
D. Sec 3 (1)
45. The Trade Union Act was enacted
A. 1926
B. 1946
C. 1947
D. 1988
46. The term "Minimum Wage" has been described in
A. The Trade Union Act
B. The Industrial Dispute Act
C. The Minimum Wage Act
D. None of the above
47. The Minimum Wages Act was enacted
A. 1921
B. 1923
C. 1947
D. 2007
48. The trade Union Act provide for:
A. Registration of trade union
B. Registration of trade union for workers
C. Recognition of registration of trade union as Juristic Persons
D. All of the above
49. Foreign court under section 2 (5) of CPC means:
A. A court situation outside India
B. A court situated outside India the authority of Government of India
C. A court situated in India applying foreign law
D. All of these
50. Judgement under section 2 (9) means
A. A decree
B. Dismissal of an appeal
C. Statement of grounds of an order or decree
D. All the above
51. Principle of Res-sub Judice is provided in
A. Section 10 of CPC
B. Section 11 of CPC
C. Section 13 of CPC
D. Section 14 of CPC
52. Doctorine of Res-judicata as contained in section 11 of CPC is based on the maxim:
A. Nemo debet his vexari pro uno eteadem causa
B. Interest republicae at sit finis litium
C. Both a & b
D. Either a or b
53. Principle of Res-Judicata applies
A. Between co-defendants
B. Between Co-plaintiffs
C. Both a & b
D. Neither a nor b
54. Validity of a foreign judgement can be challenged under Section 13 of CPC
A. In a civil court only
B. In a criminal court only
C. In both civil and criminal court
D. Neither in civil nor in criminal court
55. Under section 15 of CPC, every suit shall be instituted in
A. The district court
B. The court o f the lowest grade
C. The court of higher grade
D. All of the above
56. "X" residing in Delhi, Publishes statements defamatory to "Y" in Calcutt "Y" can sue "X" at
A. Delhi
B. Calcutta
C. Anywhere in India
D. Either in Delhi or in Calcutta
57. A suit for damages for breach of contract can be filed at a place:
A. Where the contract was made
B. Where the contract was to be performed or breach occurred
C. Anywhere in India
D. Both a & b
58. In every plain under section 26 of CPC facts should be proved by
A. Oral evidence;
B. Affidavit
C. Document
D. Oral evidence as well as document
59. Which of the following is correct of a standard form contract?
A. It is a valid contract
B. One party has no ch0ice but to accept and sign the contract
C. Both a & b
D. The consent is not a free consent
60. As a general rule, an agreement made without consideration is ____
A. Void
B. Voidable
C. Valid
D. Unlawful
61. A contingent agreement based on an impossible event under Section 36 is _____
A. Void
B. Void till impossible is known
C. Void when even becomes impossible
D. Voidable
62. The consensus ad-idem means
A. General consensus
B. Reaching an agreement
C. Meeting of minds upon the same thing in the same sense
D. All the above
63. In famous Carlill V Carbolic smoke ball Co. (1893) 1 QBD 256, the hob'ble Court held that the Contract was accepted on being
A. Communicated
B. Acted upon
C. Refused
D. Advertised
64. Inadequacy of consideration does not make a contract
A. Void
B. Voidable
C. Unenforceable
D. Neither void nor voidable
65. A Jus in Personam means a right against_____"
A. A specific person
B. The public at large
C. A specific thing
D. None of these
66. Exposure of goods by a shopkeeper is ______
A. Offer for sale
B. Invitation of offer
C. Officer
D. Acceptance
67. An agreement to remain unmarried is _________
A. Valid
B. Void
C. Voidable
D. Unenforceable
68. An agreement enforceable at law is _____
A. Enforceable acceptance
B. Accepted offer
C. Approved promise
D. Contract
69. An agreement shall be void for
A. Mistake of fact by one party
B. Mistake of fact by both the parties
C. Mistake of foreign law
D. All the above
70. Void agreement signifies
A. Agreement illegal in nature
B. Agreement not enforceable by law
C. Agreement violating legal procedure
D. Agreement against public policy
71. A proposal when accepted becomes_____
A. Promise under Section 2 (b)
B. Agreement under Section 2 (e)
C. Contract under section 2 (H)
D. None of the above
72. Offer under section 2 (a) is _____
A. Communication from one person to another
B. Suggestion by one person to another
C. Willingness to do or abstain from doing an act in order to obtain the assent of another thereto
D. None of the above
73. Which of the following statement is incorrect
A. Specific relief Act, 1963, extends to the whole of India except state of Jammu and Kashmir
B. Specific performance is granted where there exists no standard for ascertaining damage
C. Where the aggrieved party can be adequately compensated in money, he will get only a decree for damages and not the recourse to
D. None of the above
74. Which of the following is correct statement
A. Under Sec 7 the suit may be for recovery of special movable property or in the alternative for compensation
B. Under sec 8 pecuniary compensation is not an adequate relief to the plaintiff for the loss of the article and the relief prayed is for injunction restraining the defendant from disposing of the article or otherwise injuring or concealing it, or for return of the same.
C. Both a and b are correct
D. All are incorrect
75. Transfer of property Act, 1882 unborn person acquires vested interest on transfer for his benefit under transfer of property Act.
A. Upon his birth
B. 7 days after his birth
C. 12 days after his birth
D. None of all
76. Which selig transfer of property Act deals with onerous gift
A. Section 127
B. Section 126
C. Section 125
D. Section 124
77. The Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 came into force on
A. 9th December 1881
B. 19th December 1881
C. 1st March 1882
D. None of the above
78. The term "Negotiable instrument" is defined in the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 under section
A. Section 12
B. Section 13
C. Section 13 A
D. Section 13 B
79. The existence of statutes of limitation are due to
A. Long dormant claims have more of cruelty than justice in them
B. The defendant may have lost the evidence to dispute the stale claim
C. Persons with good causes of action should pursue them with reasonable diligence
D. All the above
80. Limitation Act is applicable to
A. Civil suits
B. Criminal cases
C. Both of the following is correct
D. Civil all the above
81. Upon failure to hold statutory meeting, the penalty for defaulting company shall be
A. Rs. 500/- per day of default
B. Would up
C. Rs. 1,000/- per day of default
D. None of these
82. Free transferability of shares is mandatory in a
A. Listed company
B. Company limited by shares
C. Public limited company
D. Foreign company
83. The memorandum of Association of a listed company shall be as per
A. Table A
B. Table B
C. Table C
D. Table D
84. Which of the following clauses from Memorandum of Association cannot be amended?
A. Objects clause
B. Liability Clause
C. Association Clause
D. Registered office clause
85. In the IPC, nothing is an offence which is done by a child under
A. Eight years
B. Ten years
C. Seven years
D. Twelve years
86. Right of private defence of the body extends to voluntarily causing death if the offence which occasions the exercise of right.
A. Reasonably causes apprehension that death will be cause
B. Reasonably causes apprehension that simple injury will be caused
C. Is of escaping with stolen property immediately after the theft.
D. Is of arresting a person who is running away after having committed an offence of voluntarily causing hurt
87. Under Sec 498 A, the "Cruelty" means and includes
A. Only demand of dowry
B. Only physical torture
C. Both mental & physical torture
D. None of the above
88. What is the offence where preparation itself of a offence is punishable
A. Theft
B. Dacoity
C. Murder
D. Rape
89. In Rex V. Govinda the point of distinction between the two provisions of the IPC were explained
A. Section 34 and Section 149
B. Section 302 and Section 304
C. Section 299 and Section 300
D. Section 403 and Section 405
90. A has sexual intercourse with his own wife aged about 14 years with her consent. A committed
A. No offence
B. Offence of Rape
C. Intercourse with own wife is not Rape
D. As there was consent hence A cannot be held guilty for the offence Rape