1. Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojna is mainly meant to serve the needs of
A. Organised workers
B. Unorganised workers
C. Unorganised sector workers belonging to BPL category and their family members
D. Organised sector workers belonging to BPL category and their family members
2. Equal pay for equal work for both men and women is proclaimed under _____ of the constitution of IndiA.
A. Art.39 (a)
B. Art. 39(d)
C. Art.39 (b)
D. Art. 39(c)
3. Where any workman is suspended by the employer pending investigation or inquiry into complaints or charges of misconduct against him, the employer shall pay to such workman subsistence allowance. This provision was inserted in the Industrial Employment (standing Orders) Act, 1946 in which year
A. 1992
B. 1982
C. 2009
D. 2010
4. _____ was a leading case on the point as to whether an employer has a right to deduct wages unilaterally and without holding an enquiry for the period the employees go on strike or resort to go slow
Bank of India vs. T S Kelawala and others
B. Randhirsingh Vs Union of India
Kamani metals and alloys LtD. Vs. Their workmen
D. Workmen Vs. Reptakos Brett and Co. LtD.
5. Under the Industrial disputes Act, if the employer terminates the services o f an individual workman, any dispute / difference arising out o f such termination shall be deemed to be
A. Industrial dispute
B. Individual dispute
C. Both individual and industrial dispute
D. None of these
6. Gloucstershire grammer school case is leading case to explain the
A. Volenti non fit injuria
B. Injuria non fit volenti
Damnum sine injuria
D. Injuria sine damnum
7. Right to freedom to acquire, hold and dispose-off property is abolished by
44th Amendment Act, 1978
B. 43rd Amendment Act, 1976
C. 50th Amendment Act, 1950
D. 1st Amendment Act, 1951
8. Which one of the following is covered under the definition of State
The Indian Statistical Institute
B. Indian Council of Agricultural Research
C. Sainik School Society
D. NCERT
9. National Conservation Strategy and Policy Statement on Environment and Development is a major environmental policy in India and it was passed in the year
A. 1988
B. 1982
1992
D. 1990
10. _____ of the Environmental Protection Act, 1986, defines "Environment"
A. Section 2 (a)
B. Section 3 (a)
C. Section 1 (a)
D. Section 11 (a)
11. Polluter Pays Principle means
A. Polluter should bear the cost of pollution as the polluter is responsible for pollution
B. Polluter should not necessarily bear the cost of pollution as the polluter is may not be responsible for pollution
C. Polluter may bear the cost of pollution as the polluter may be responsible for pollution
D. None of the above.
12. "Pollution is a civil wrong. By its very nature, it is a tort committed against the community as a whole. A person, therefore, who is guilty of causing pollution has to pay damages (compensation) for restoration of the environment. He has also to pay damages to those who have suffered loss on account of the act of the offender. Further, the offender can a lso be held liable to pay exemplary damages so that it may act as a deterrent for others not to cause pollution in any manner. However, the court cannot impose any pollution fine in absence of any trial and finding of guilty under the relevant statutory provisions" this observation was made in
A. MC Mehta Vs. Kamal Nath
B. Calcutta Tanneries Case
C. MC Mehta Vs. UOI
D. A P Pollution Control Board Vs. M V Nayudu
13. India became a party to the International convention on Biological Diversity in
A. 1992
B. 1995
C. 1994
D. 2000
14. "A", a railway company is in possession of goods as a consignee. It does not claim any interest in the goods except lien of warfage, demurrage and freight but rival claims have been made by "B" and "C" adversely to each other "A" can institute
An a plication to decide the same
B. An interpleader suit
C. Friendly suit
D. None of the above.
15. As per the provisions of the Criminal Procedure Code, the word "inspection" used in S. 93 (1) (c) refers to
A. Things or documents
B. Documents only
C. Locality and place
D. None of the above
16. Statement recorded during investigation under S.161 of Cr. P. C can be used during trial for
A. Corroborating the witness
B. Contradicting the witness
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
17. "If an accused is charged of a major offence but is not found guilty thereunder, he can be convicted of minor offence, if the facts established indicate that such minor offence has been committed" it was so upheld in which case
Sangarabonia Sreenu Vs. State of Andhra Pradesh
B. State of Himachal Pradesh Vs. Tara Dutta
C. Shamsher Singh Vs. State of Punjab
D. Nalini Vs. State of Tamil Nadu
18. "Ex dolo malo oritur action" is
A. An action arose only when a right infringes
B. An action could not prevent a legal right
C. No action on an immoral act
D. None of the above
19. The Jural correlative of immunity is
Power
B. Disability
C. No claim
D. Claim
20. Who defines "eternal law as, the divine order or will of god which requires the preservation of natural order forbids the breach of it."
A. Ambrose
B. Augustine
C. Gregory
D. All the above
21. "Government, even in its best state, is but a necessary evil; in its worst state, an intolerable one.� Who stated so?
A. Thomas Paine
B. Gregory Peck
C. Jefferson
D. Dicey
22. The Constitution of India has recognized the concept of tribunals as instruments of quasi-judicial administrative adjudication
A. Art. 39(a) and 39(b)
B. Art 323-A and 323-B
C. Art.368
D. Art.202A and 202B
23. Nemojudexin causasua meaning No mam shall be a judge in his own cause was first stated by------------------in Dr. Bonham�s case
Lord Grey
Lord Heward
Lord Coke
D. Lord Moulton
24. General power of the bar council of India to make rules is envisaged under which Section of the advocates Act, 1961
A. S.48
B. S.49
C. S.II-2
D. S.IV A
25. Seven Lamps of advocacy is attributable to
Justice Abbot Parry
B. Justice Heward
C. Justice Bhagawathy
D. Justice Grey
26. Which Section under the Advocates Act, 1961 speaks of disciplinary powers of the Bar Council of India
A. 35
B. 37
C. 36
D. 39
27. S. ---- of Advocates Act, 1961 speaks about constitution of Legal Aid Committees
A. 9
B. 10
C. 9A
D. 10A
28. S.89 of the Civil Procedure Code was incorporated through the Civil Procedure Code Amendment Act of ----------which is the prominent provision that discusses about the jurisdiction of civil courts in applying alternate Dispute Resolution mechanisms.
A. 1989
B. 1999
C. 1988
D. 2009
29. In which case the Supreme Court held that Part I of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act would equally apply to international commercial arbitration held outside India, unless any or all provisions have been excluded by agreement between the parties.
A. Bhatia International v. Bulk Trading S.A
B. United India Ins. Co. Ltd v. associated Transport Corpn.Ltd
C. Hakam Singh v. Gammon (India) LtD.
D. Ajmera brother�s v. Suraj Naresh Kumar Jain
30. Establishment of Permanent Lok Adalats is envisaged under S. ----------- of the Legal Services Authority Act of 1987
A. 22B
B. 22A
C. 22(1)
D. 22
31. Evidence to document unmeaning in reference to existing facts is called as
A. Patent ambiguity
Latent ambiguity
Both of them
D. None of the above
32. Original document is the best evidence � Exception to this rule is contained in
A. Indian Evidence Act
Criminal Procedure Code
C. Bankers Book Evidence Act
None of these
33. Doctrine of election is based on the foundation that a person taking the benefit of an instrument must
Not bear the burden
Burden is not the subject of election
Burden is the subject of election
D. Bear the burden
34. Period of limitation for execution of the order of maintenance is ---------from the date on which it becomes due.
A. 1 year
B. 5 years
C. 9 years
D. 15 years
35. Identify the correct order in which the following law making treaties are concluded 1. The Vienna Convention on ConsularRelations 2. The General Agreement on Tariffs and,Trade 3. The Declaration of ParisnSelect the correct answer from the codes given below
A. 1,3,2
B. 3,2,1
C. 2,1,3
D. 1,2,3
36. Which one of the following doctrine requires that the parties to a treaty are bound to observe its terms in good faith?
The Drago doctrine
B. Right of asylum
C. Doctrine of equality
D. Pacta Sunt Servanda
37. General Assembly adopted the definition of word aggression through
A. Resolution 3314 XXIX, 1974
B. Resolution 3312 XXXIX, 1973
C. Resolution 2213, 1982
D. None of the above
38. The admission of a new political entity into the United Nations can be termed as
Express recognition
B. Conditional recognition
C. Collective recognition
D. De-facto recognition
39. " A State is and becomes and international person through recognition only and exclusively," Who stated this?
A. L. Oppenheim
B. Hobbes
C. Fenwick
D. Strarke
40. The United Nations Commission on International Trade Law (UNCITRAL) adopted the Model Law on e-commerce in
A. 1997
B. 1998
C. 1996
D. 2013
41. Section 3 of Information Technology Act, 2000 which was originally "Digital Signature" was renamed as --------------is ITAA -2008
"Digital Signature and Electronic Signature"
B. "Digital Signature and E-Signature"
C. "Digital and Electronic Signature
D. None of the above
42. Which among the following are the digital signature certifying authorities in India?
A. M/s. Safescript
B. M/s. NCERT
C. M/s. MTL
D. All the above
43. 4Section 43 of the Information technology Act deals with
A. Criminal liability
B. Civil liability
C. Both the above
D. None of the above
44. "Where a body corporate is negligent in implementing reasonable security practices and thereby causes wrongful loss or gain to any person, such body corporate shall be liable to pay damages by way of compensation to the person so affecteD. " Which section of the Information Technology Amendment Act, 2008 envisages so
A. 43
B. 43A
C. 43B
D. 43C
45. R obtained a sum of Rs. 50,000/- from D by putting Din fear of death. Here R commits
A. Extortion
B. Cheating
C. Mischief
D. Robbery
46. What is the period of limitation to file a suit for compensation for false imprisonment?
A. 2 years
B. 3 years
C. 12 years
D. 1 year
47. As per S.19 of the Limitation Act, 1963 if any payment is made on account of a debt, before the expiration of the prescribed period by the person liable to pay the debt or by his agent duly authorised in that behalf a fresh period of limitation starts running from the
A. Time when suit was filed
When the payment was made
C. When the creditor demands
D. None of the above
48. Under the Companies Act, 2013, any company having a net worth of rupees 500 crore or more or a turnover of rupees 1,000 crore or more or a net profit of rupees 5 crore or more should mandatorily spend --- of their net profits per fiscal on Corporate Social Responsibility activities
A. 3%
B. 5%
C. 10%
D. 2%
49. The ________ Guidelines constitute one of the most comprehensive CSR tools available to companies.
A. OECD
B. OACF
C. OECG
D. ASEAN
50. Conditions of Hindu Marriage have been laid down under ______ of Hindu Marriage Act.
A. SeC. 9
B. SeC. 10
C. SeC. 5
D. SeC. 13
51. The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005,
A. Allows daughters of the deceased equal rights with daughter
B. Allows sons of the deceased equal rights with windows
C. Allows daughters of the deceased equal right with wife
Allows daughters of the deceased equal, rights with sons.
52. The Fuller /Hart Debate could be summarized as a debate between which two jurisprudential approaches/positions
Positivism and utilitarianism
B. Natural Law and Positivism
C. Positivism and Liberalism
D. Marxism and liberal feminism
53. In bailment if the goods are lent free of cost to the bailee for his use it is known as bailment by
A. Deposition
B. Pledge
C. Commodation
D. None of the above
54. Where the proposal and acceptance is through letters, the contract is made at the place where
A. The acceptance is received
B. The letter of acceptance is posted
C. Both the above answers
D. None of the above
55. The surety stands discharged by
A. Death
B. Revocation
C. Variance in the terms of the contract without his consent
D. None of the above
56. All contract which are unlawful and void are known as
A. Illegal contracts
B. Nugatory contracts
C. Voidable contracts
D. None of the above
57. S. ____ of the Negotiable instruments Act deals with �noting�.
A. 100
B. 101
C. 102
D. 99
58. Cancellation of crossing is also called
Marking
B. Opening of crossing
C. Cancellation
D. None of the above
59. Negotiable claim issued by a bank in return for a term deposit is called
A. Share certificate
B. Certificate of incorporation
C. Certificate of deposit
D. Term deposit
60. Wager relate with
A. Present event
B. Past event
C. Future event
D. Any of the above
61. In the judgement of the Supreme Court in Salem Bar Association vs. Union of India, the Supreme Court had requested this committee headed by _____ to prepare a case management formulA.
A. Justice.Bhagwathi
B. Justice Muralidhar
C. Justice .Raveendran
D. Justice .Jagannandha Rao
62. The 2013 Companies Act has increased the limit of the number of members in Private Company from 50 to
A. 100
B. 200
C. 300
D. 150
63. The Standards on Auditing have been accorded legal sanctity in the 2013 Act and would be subject to notification by the
A. NFRA
B. NRFA
C. NARF
D. SEBI
64. Quifacit per aliumfacit per se,means
A. Act of an agent is the act of principal
B. Act of agent is not an act of principal
C. Principal and agent are liable jointly
D. Agent must not act in contravention of the act principal
65. The concept of 'privity of contract' was rejected in
A. Winterbottom v. Wright
B. Donoghue v. Stevenson
C. Longmeid v. Holiday
D. Heaven v. Pender
66. ---------------------is observed as the World Consumer Rights Day.
A. 15th of March
B. 16th of March
C. 12th of March
D. 11th of March
67. Accountability of medical professional and the need for qualitative change in the attitude of the medical service provided by the hospitals was emphasized by the Supreme Court in which of the following cases
A. Bhatia International v Bulk Trading S.A
B. Indian Medical Association v. V.P. Shantha and Ors
C. Manekha Gandhi v. Union of India
D. LucknowDevelopment Authority v. M.K.Gupta
68. Renewal of driving license is envisaged under S. ___of the Motor vehicle Act, 1988
A. 20
B. 21
C. 22
D. 15
69. S.82 IPC is an illustration for
A. Presumption of fact
B. Presumption of law
C. Presumption of fact and presumption of law
D. None of the above
70. Meaning of Nemo moriturus praesumuntur mentiri
A. A dying man can never speak truth
B. A dying man can never speak falsehood
C. A dying man can speak truth
D. A dying man may not speak falsehood
71. If a court lower to the Sessions Court tries a murder case that court is called as
A. Coram sub judice
B. Coram non judice
C. Coram non subjudice
D. Coram judice
72. SFIO stands for
A. Serious Fraud Investigation Office
B. Serious Force Institution Office
C. Serious Form Investigation Office
D. Serious File Investigation Office
73. Which provision of the Companies Act, 2013 discusses about the issue of bonus shares out of its free reserves or the securities premium account or the capital redemption reserve account, subject to the compliance with certain conditions such as authorization by the articles, approval in the general meeting
A. S.36
B. S.43
C. S.63
D. S.33
74. The question whether the Fundamental Rights can be amended under Art.368 came for consideration first time in
Shankari Prasad v. Union of India
B. KeshavanandaBharati v. Union of India
GolakNath v. State of Punjab
D. None of the above
75. A law which violates fundamental rights in not nullity or void-ab-initio but becomes only unenforceable, this doctrine is called as
A. Doctrine of severability
B. Doctrine of 3 points
C. Tornado doctrine
D. Doctrine of eclipse
76. Equality of of opportunity admits discrimination with reasons, It was observed by apex court in
A. State of Kerala v. N.M. Thomas
B. Indira Sawhney v. Union of India
C. AIR India v. Nargesh Mirza
D. All the above
77. An Executive Magistrate may require security for keeping good behaviour from habitual offenders for a period not more than
A. 6 months
B. 1 year
C. 2 years
D. 3 years
78. S. 167 of the Criminal Procedure Code provides that the nature of custody can be altered from judicial custody to police custody and vice-versa this alteration can be done during the period of first
A. 15 days
B. 16 days
C. 14 days
D. 12 days
79. Under which provision of the Code of Criminal Procedure it is mandatory for a police officer to inform the person arrested, the grounds of arrest and right of bail if the offence is not non �bailable
A. S.150
B. S.105
C. S.50
D. S.510
80. S.41-B is inserted in to the Criminal Procedure Code on the basis of which among the following decisions
A. NandiniSatpathy v.PL Dhani
B. Sunil Batra v. Delhi Administration
C. Prem Shankar Shukla v. Delhi Administration
D. D. K.Basu v. State of West Bengal
81. Civil Surgeon shall refer unsound minded person to a clinical Psychologist/Psychiatrist. However by virtue of S. -----the aggrieved accused may prefer appeal before Medical Board consisting of head of Psychiatry and faculty of Medical College
A. 328
B. 328 1A
C. 328(2)
D. 346
82. What are the remedies open to the party aggrieved in a suit on contracts?
A. Specific performance and injunction
B. Specific performance and damages
C. Specific performance only
D. All the above
83. 'A' resides at Delhi, and 'B' at AgrA. B borrows Rs. 20,000/- from A at Benares and passes a promissory note to a A payable at Benares. B fails to repay the loan. A may sue B at
A. Benares or Agra
B. Benares only
C. Agra only
D. Benares, Agra and Delhi
84. The general principle of waiver that provides that failure to raise objection in the court of the first instance and at the earliest opportunity shall prevent the defendant from raising such objection at a subsequent stage and the judgment would not be vitiates on the ground of absence of territorial or pecuniary jurisdiction is reflected in which provision of Civil procedure Code
A. S.15
B. S.16
C. S.51
D. S.21
85. Act of court can do no wrong to any person. Which concept relates to this ideology
A. Precept
B. Caveat
C. Restitution
D. Injuction
86. Rabindra Kumar Pal@ Dara Singh v.Republic of India a famous case coming under S.30 of Evidence Act is also well known as
Graham Stains Murder case
B. Graham Bells Murder case
C. Graham Street�s Murder case
D. Graham Stoits Murder case
87. Statement by a person who is dead is a relevant fact under ------of the Indian Evidence Act
A. S.32(3)
B. S.32(4)
C. S.32(5)
D. S.32(6)
88. A Charge Sheet field under S.173 of Cr.P.C is an example of
A. Public document
B. Private document
C. Patent document
D. Latent document
89. Procedure of investigation of criminal cases under the Criminal Procedure Code is contained in Chapter
A. XI
B. XII
C. X
D. IX
90. Frost v.knight is a leading case on
A. S.32
B. S.33
C. S.34
D. S.35
91. Which among the following is a law based on equity?
A. Indian Contract Act, 1872
B. Indian Penal Code, 1863
Indian Partnership Act, 1932
D. Specific Relief Act, 1963
92. Which section of the Specific Relief Act, describes temporary Injunction
A. 45
B. 41
C. 37
D. 36
93. The maintenance amount which can be transferred is ---
A. Future maintenance
B. Right to future maintenance
C. Arrears of maintenance up to a certain date
D. None of the above
94. The maximum period during which property can be tied up is
A. Only 15 years
One or more life or lives in being at the date of transfer and the minority of an unborn person
C. During the lifetime of the transferor and the minority period of an unborn person
D. None of the above.
95. Whoever causes bodily pain, disease or infirmity to any person is said to have inflicted ---- on the victim
Grievous hurt
B. Hurt
C. Assault
D. None of the above
96. Personation at Election is an offence under S. --- of the Indian Penal Code
A. 124 A
B. 121 A
C. 153 B
D. 171 D
97. Raman having found a key of Raju�s house which Raju had lost, commits house trespass by entering Raju�s house after opening the door with that key. Raman has committed the offence of
A. House trespass
B. Criminal trespass
C. House breaking
D. None of these
98. ____________defined crime as "a violation of public rights and duties due to the whole community considered as community.
A. Blackstone
B. Justice Bhagwati
C. V.R.KrishnaIyer
D. Lord Heward
99. Who among the following is not a �public servant�?
A. Liquidator
B. A Civil Judge
Secretary of a Co-operative Society
D. None of these
100. The Sampoorna Grameen Rozgar Yojana (Universal Rural Employment Programme) was launched in 2001 and was implemented through
A. Labour offices
B. Government
C. Panchayati Raj Institutions
D. All the above